An RMA was performed on a PO, but we have no credit to apply to offset. What is best practice?

AI generated answer (using internal Slack threads):

****** Disclaimer: This response was generated by an artificial intelligence assistant based on previous conversations from multiple Slack channels, and may contain inaccuracies or mistakes. ****** In the case where an RMA was performed on a PO, but there is no credit to apply to offset, the best practice would be to follow a process that involves creating a new Purchase Order (PO) to receive the repaired item. Then, apply the credit from the Vendor Return Material Authorization (VRMA) to the Bill from the new PO. This will ensure that your costing doesn’t go out of whack. If the finance department is okay with it, you could also consider doing an inventory adjustment. However, this might not be the best practice in all situations as it could potentially affect your financial reports. Another approach could be to use a custom field to capture the original PO#. This could be useful in situations where you have POs that run for years, with payments all in closed periods/years. Lastly, if you need to build an approval workflow on Vendor (Bill) credit, it's not directly possible. However, you could consider using a Return Material Authorization (RMA) -> Vendor Credit process to handle the approval concept. This could be a workaround to achieve the desired result. Remember, the best practice can vary depending on the specific requirements and constraints of your organization.

Parts are not being repaired either.