I am curious about others' opinions on a case/defect I'm pursuing. If I have an item where Amount Source = Percent based on Amount, Start/End Date = Event Date, and Create Revenue Plans On = Billing.....and I sell that item qty of 100 for $0 on a sales order with other items that aren't free.....and due to allocation, the element for that item now has a revenue amount > $0......and I invoice for quantity of 50 (so invoice amount of $0 for that item). How much should the revenue plan recognize as a result of that invoice?

Since RA is created against SO and allocation is done before any invoicing, the free item wouldhave X amount allocated to it. After that basis the invoicing, actual plan should be created for proportionate invioce quantity, so 50/half in this case. This is my understanding of the system behaviour

I concur with Vaibhav; your revenue amount for the item with $0 value on the invoice is determined what FV is for that item; it is recognized upon invoicing - whatever % of your sale you invoice your revenue for that item will be this % times FV times Qty. What is the defect here?

@Vaibhav @Karina What actually happens is that when I invoice the free item (for 50 qty, $0 amount), 100% of the revenue is recognized. When I later invoice the other 50 qty, the first revenue plan will be edited to drop to 50%, with revenue reversed if it was recognized, and a new plan will be created to recognize the 50% triggered by the second invoice. The eventual outcome is that for each invoice of $0 to partially invoice qty where the total sales amount is $0, 1/n will be recognized where n is the number of invoices required to fully invoice the quantity.

looks like a defect…. that’s why i avoid revenue trigger as Billing at any cost..

Yep, I have an open defect on this, and appreciate your thoughts on a consistent way to calculate if sales amount = $0, revenue amount != $0, and billing will not be for entire qty at once.

Yeah, not sure about this behavior! Defect registered so this isn't the expected either