But is that the correct accounting treatment? When the receiving subsidiary sells it to third party, the COGS will be calculated based on the inventory cost (exclusive of intercompany markup). Yes, that should be eliminated at consolidated level. But when you run the receiving subsidiary financial statements, don't you need to include the markup as part of the inventory asset/COGS (unless the net realizable value is lower than the inventory cost + markup)?
I was told that this markup approach does not conform to the accounting standards but I would like to hear other people's thoughts.